UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs May 11 – May 17 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Mar 2024)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from May 11 – May 17 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz May 11 – May 17
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Art and CultureWho among the following translated the Autobiography of Madam Curie in Hindi? (Level-Difficult) (PYQ-CSE-2008)
Correct
Lal Bahadur Shastri translated the autobiography of Madam Curie, a French scientist who discovered Radium, into Hindi.
Incorrect
Lal Bahadur Shastri translated the autobiography of Madam Curie, a French scientist who discovered Radium, into Hindi.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: HealthIdentify the disease: (Level – Easy)
- The disease causes the early death of the red blood cells.
- The government of India introduced a mission to eliminate the disease by 2047.
Options:
Correct
- Sickle Cell Disease is an inherited blood disorder or red blood cell (RBCc) disorder.
- Red blood cells contain hemoglobin which is a protein that carries oxygen through the body.
- Usually, the RBCs are disc-shaped and flexible in order to move easily through the vessels. In the case of Sickle Cell Disease RBCs are crescent or sickle-shaped thereby slowing or at times blocking the blood flow.
- Sickle Cells usually die in 10 to 20 days causing a shortage of RBCs.
- The Union Finance Minister while presenting the Union Budget 2023-24 has announced that the government will work in “mission mode” to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia by 2047.
Incorrect
- Sickle Cell Disease is an inherited blood disorder or red blood cell (RBCc) disorder.
- Red blood cells contain hemoglobin which is a protein that carries oxygen through the body.
- Usually, the RBCs are disc-shaped and flexible in order to move easily through the vessels. In the case of Sickle Cell Disease RBCs are crescent or sickle-shaped thereby slowing or at times blocking the blood flow.
- Sickle Cells usually die in 10 to 20 days causing a shortage of RBCs.
- The Union Finance Minister while presenting the Union Budget 2023-24 has announced that the government will work in “mission mode” to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia by 2047.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityHow many of the following statements is/are true? (Level – Moderate)
- Only the Supreme Court of India has the power to issue writs.
- Quo Warranto cannot be issued against a ministerial office.
- This feature has been borrowed from the American (USA) Constitution.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Writs are a written order from the Supreme Court or High Court that commands constitutional remedies for Indian Citizens against the violation of their fundamental rights.
- The Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs, whereas Article 226 empowers the High Courts.
- Thus, both the Supreme Court as well as the High Courts can issue writs in India.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Supreme Court or High Courts issue “Quo Warranto” writ to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office by a person.
- Quo-Warranto can be issued only when the substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution is involved
- It can’t be issued against private or ministerial office
- Statement 3 is not correct, The feature of issuing writs are borrowed from English law where they are known as “prerogative writs”.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Writs are a written order from the Supreme Court or High Court that commands constitutional remedies for Indian Citizens against the violation of their fundamental rights.
- The Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs, whereas Article 226 empowers the High Courts.
- Thus, both the Supreme Court as well as the High Courts can issue writs in India.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Supreme Court or High Courts issue “Quo Warranto” writ to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office by a person.
- Quo-Warranto can be issued only when the substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution is involved
- It can’t be issued against private or ministerial office
- Statement 3 is not correct, The feature of issuing writs are borrowed from English law where they are known as “prerogative writs”.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: GeographyHow many of the following statements is/are true? (Level – Moderate)
- A positive Indian Ocean Dipole can neutralize the effect of El Nino.
- A positive IOD is experienced when the Western Indian Ocean basin is warmer than the Eastern basin.
- IOD is also known as Indian Nino.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, A positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) neutralises the impacts of an El Niño.
- Positive IOD acts like a mini La Niña over India.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is a periodic oscillation of sea surface temperatures in which:
- Positive phase is associated with the warmer western Indian Ocean than the eastern Indian Ocean.
- Negative phase is associated with the colder western Indian Ocean than the eastern Indian Ocean.
- Statement 3 is correct, The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is also known as the “Indian Nino”.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, A positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) neutralises the impacts of an El Niño.
- Positive IOD acts like a mini La Niña over India.
- Statement 2 is correct, The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is a periodic oscillation of sea surface temperatures in which:
- Positive phase is associated with the warmer western Indian Ocean than the eastern Indian Ocean.
- Negative phase is associated with the colder western Indian Ocean than the eastern Indian Ocean.
- Statement 3 is correct, The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is also known as the “Indian Nino”.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: HistoryHow many of the following statements is/are true regarding the Uttiramerur Inscription in news lately? (Level – Difficult)
- It is a Chola Period inscription located in the state of Tamil Nadu.
- It talks about the economy of the time and the booming business relations between India and Southeast Asia.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Uthiramerur Inscription dated around 920 A.D. during the reign of Parantaka Chola is located in the present-day Kanchipuram district of Tamil Nadu
- Statement 2 is not correct, Uthiramerur Inscription provides details about how village assembly functioned 1,000 years ago
- The inscription gives details of the functioning of the local sabha, i.e. the village assembly.
- The inscription also provides details about how members were selected, the required qualifications, their roles and responsibilities, and how they could be removed.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Uthiramerur Inscription dated around 920 A.D. during the reign of Parantaka Chola is located in the present-day Kanchipuram district of Tamil Nadu
- Statement 2 is not correct, Uthiramerur Inscription provides details about how village assembly functioned 1,000 years ago
- The inscription gives details of the functioning of the local sabha, i.e. the village assembly.
- The inscription also provides details about how members were selected, the required qualifications, their roles and responsibilities, and how they could be removed.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: GeographyIn the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere? (Level – Moderate) [PYQ - 2019]
Correct
- Thinning cirrus clouds would be achieved by injecting ice nuclei (such as dust) into regions where cirrus clouds form, making the ice crystals bigger and reducing the cirrus optical depth.
- Thinning the clouds could allow more heat to escape into space and thereby cool the planet and reduce global warming.
- Stratospheric sulfate aerosol injection has been proposed to counter anthropogenic greenhouse gas warming.
- Stratospheric sulfate aerosol injection increases the reflectivity of the lower stratosphere helps reflect inbound sunlight back into space and thus helps keep the planet cool.
Incorrect
- Thinning cirrus clouds would be achieved by injecting ice nuclei (such as dust) into regions where cirrus clouds form, making the ice crystals bigger and reducing the cirrus optical depth.
- Thinning the clouds could allow more heat to escape into space and thereby cool the planet and reduce global warming.
- Stratospheric sulfate aerosol injection has been proposed to counter anthropogenic greenhouse gas warming.
- Stratospheric sulfate aerosol injection increases the reflectivity of the lower stratosphere helps reflect inbound sunlight back into space and thus helps keep the planet cool.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: G KWhat is the “One week-one lab” program that is in news recently? (Level – Difficult)
Correct
- The “One Week One Lab” campaign highlights India’s global excellence in technology, innovation and start-ups.
- Each of the 37 Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) Labs spread across the nation dedicated to a different exclusive area of work will be given an opportunity under the “One Week One Lab” to showcase the work being done by it.
Incorrect
- The “One Week One Lab” campaign highlights India’s global excellence in technology, innovation and start-ups.
- Each of the 37 Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) Labs spread across the nation dedicated to a different exclusive area of work will be given an opportunity under the “One Week One Lab” to showcase the work being done by it.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Social IssuesWhich of the following statements is/are true? (Level – Easy)
- The Golden Triangle lies to the East of India while the Golden Crescent lies to our West.
- The Central government has set up a multi-agency committee to recommend against drug peddling via sea routes.
Options:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statements is/are true about the Gold Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)? (Level – Moderate)
- They are a form of electronic gold, backed by real gold.
- They were introduced in India in 2007.
- Their trade is not allowed on the stock markets, but they can be encashed at the banks.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Gold Exchange Traded Funds allow investors to buy gold in digital form as units of the ETF and the prices of Gold ETFs are based on the price of gold.
- Statement 2 is correct, Gold Exchange Traded Funds were introduced in India in 2007.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Gold ETFs can be sold at the stock exchange through the broker using a demat account and trading account and can be encashed by selling the units on the stock exchange.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Gold Exchange Traded Funds allow investors to buy gold in digital form as units of the ETF and the prices of Gold ETFs are based on the price of gold.
- Statement 2 is correct, Gold Exchange Traded Funds were introduced in India in 2007.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Gold ETFs can be sold at the stock exchange through the broker using a demat account and trading account and can be encashed by selling the units on the stock exchange.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is/are true about Starship? (Level – Moderate)
- It is the most powerful rocket ever built, developed by NASA in collaboration with the ESA.
- It will be used to ferry astronauts to the moon under the Artemis III mission of NASA.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Starship is a super heavy-lift launch vehicle which is being developed by SpaceX.
- Space Exploration Technologies Corp. (SpaceX) is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launcher, and satellite communications company founded in 2002 by Elon Musk.
- Statement 2 is correct, The U.S. space agency NASA has picked the Starship spacecraft to ferry astronauts to the Moon in late 2025 as a part of the Artemis III Mission.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Starship is a super heavy-lift launch vehicle which is being developed by SpaceX.
- Space Exploration Technologies Corp. (SpaceX) is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launcher, and satellite communications company founded in 2002 by Elon Musk.
- Statement 2 is correct, The U.S. space agency NASA has picked the Starship spacecraft to ferry astronauts to the Moon in late 2025 as a part of the Artemis III Mission.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level – Moderate) [PYQ 2017]
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Since its inception in 1950 and till October 1989, the Election Commission of India (ECI) was a one-member body with only the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) as its sole member.
- In October 1989, the ECI became a three-member body as it now consists of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs).
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Election Commission of India decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- Statement 3 is correct, Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Since its inception in 1950 and till October 1989, the Election Commission of India (ECI) was a one-member body with only the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) as its sole member.
- In October 1989, the ECI became a three-member body as it now consists of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs).
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Election Commission of India decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- Statement 3 is correct, Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regard to the Special Marriage Act, 1954: (Level – Moderate)
- The applicability of the Act extends to the people of all faiths, including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists, across India.
- Section 5 of the Act specifies that the parties must give written notice to the Marriage Officer of the District and that at least one of the parties must have lived in the district for at least 30 days immediately before the date of such notification.
- Section 7 of the Act allows any person to object to the marriage before the expiration of 30 days from the date of the notice’s publication.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The applicability of the Act extends to the people of all faiths, including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists, across India.
- Statement 2 is correct, As per Section 5 of the Act, the parties must give written notice to the Marriage Officer of the District and at least one of the parties must have lived in the district for at least 30 days immediately before the date of such notification.
- Statement 3 is correct, Section 7 of the Act allows any person to object to the marriage before the expiration of 30 days from the date of the notice’s publication.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The applicability of the Act extends to the people of all faiths, including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists, across India.
- Statement 2 is correct, As per Section 5 of the Act, the parties must give written notice to the Marriage Officer of the District and at least one of the parties must have lived in the district for at least 30 days immediately before the date of such notification.
- Statement 3 is correct, Section 7 of the Act allows any person to object to the marriage before the expiration of 30 days from the date of the notice’s publication.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level – Moderate)
- A “civil union” refers to the legal status that allows same-sex couples specific rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married couples.
- Although a civil union resembles a marriage and brings with it employment, inheritance, property, and parental rights, there are some differences between the two.
- As per the adoption rules in India, a child can be adopted only if “there is consent of both the spouses for the adoption in case of a married couple”, and “a single male shall not be eligible to adopt a girl child”.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, A “civil union” refers to the legal status that allows same-sex couples specific rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married couples.
- Statement 2 is correct, Although a civil union resembles a marriage and brings with it employment, inheritance, property, and parental rights, there are some differences between the two.
- Statement 3 is correct, As per Section 5(2)A of the Adoption Regulations, 2022 a child can be adopted only if “there is consent of both the spouses for the adoption in case of a married couple”, and “a single male shall not be eligible to adopt a girl child”.
- Further, According to Section 5(3) of the Adoption Regulations, 2022 a couple cannot adopt unless they have at least two years of stable marital relationship, except in the case of relatives or step-parent adoption.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, A “civil union” refers to the legal status that allows same-sex couples specific rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married couples.
- Statement 2 is correct, Although a civil union resembles a marriage and brings with it employment, inheritance, property, and parental rights, there are some differences between the two.
- Statement 3 is correct, As per Section 5(2)A of the Adoption Regulations, 2022 a child can be adopted only if “there is consent of both the spouses for the adoption in case of a married couple”, and “a single male shall not be eligible to adopt a girl child”.
- Further, According to Section 5(3) of the Adoption Regulations, 2022 a couple cannot adopt unless they have at least two years of stable marital relationship, except in the case of relatives or step-parent adoption.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements: (Level – Moderate)
- India is a signatory to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA) which came into effect in July 1997 and accounts for more than 95 per cent of the world trade in products such as computers, telecom equipment, semiconductors and scientific instruments.
- As a signatory to the agreement, India is required to eliminate tariffs on these products.
- At the Nairobi Ministerial Conference in December 2016, the nations decided to conclude the expansion of the Agreement, and named it Information Technology – II Agreement.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, India is a signatory to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA) which came into effect in July 1997 and accounts for more than 95% of the world trade in products like computers, telecom equipment, semiconductors and scientific instruments.
- Statement 2 is correct, As a signatory to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA), India is mandated to eliminate tariffs on these products.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Nairobi Ministerial Conference was held in December 2015. At this conference, the member countries concluded the expansion of the Agreement, and named it Information Technology Agreement – II.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, India is a signatory to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA) which came into effect in July 1997 and accounts for more than 95% of the world trade in products like computers, telecom equipment, semiconductors and scientific instruments.
- Statement 2 is correct, As a signatory to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA), India is mandated to eliminate tariffs on these products.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Nairobi Ministerial Conference was held in December 2015. At this conference, the member countries concluded the expansion of the Agreement, and named it Information Technology Agreement – II.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is not correct about the National Mobile Monitoring System App? (Level – Easy)
Correct
The National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) App was launched by the Minister of Rural Development on May 21 2021.
This app is aimed at bringing more transparency and ensures proper monitoring of various schemes.
The NMMS App is applicable for the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA workers for all the States/Union Territories.
The NMMS App permits taking real-time attendance of workers along with geo-tagged photographs. The app also helps in increasing citizen oversight of the programme.Incorrect
The National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) App was launched by the Minister of Rural Development on May 21 2021.
This app is aimed at bringing more transparency and ensures proper monitoring of various schemes.
The NMMS App is applicable for the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA workers for all the States/Union Territories.
The NMMS App permits taking real-time attendance of workers along with geo-tagged photographs. The app also helps in increasing citizen oversight of the programme. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityWhat was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950? (Level – Easy) PYQ (2021)
Correct
- The exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950 was ‘Sovereign Democratic Republic’.
- The Preamble was amended in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which added three new words – Socialist, Secular and Integrity – to the Preamble.
Incorrect
- The exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950 was ‘Sovereign Democratic Republic’.
- The Preamble was amended in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which added three new words – Socialist, Secular and Integrity – to the Preamble.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: GovernanceConsider the following statements with regard to the Census exercise in India: (Level – Easy)
- The decennial Census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.
- The population census is a Union subject under Article 246 of the Indian Constitution.
- The information collected during the population Census is so confidential that it is only accessible to the courts of law.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
- Statement 2 is correct, The population census is a Union subject under Article 246 of the Constitution.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The information collected during the process of the Census is very confidential and it is not even accessible to the courts of law.
- The confidentiality of the data is guaranteed by the Census Act, 1948.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
- Statement 2 is correct, The population census is a Union subject under Article 246 of the Constitution.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The information collected during the process of the Census is very confidential and it is not even accessible to the courts of law.
- The confidentiality of the data is guaranteed by the Census Act, 1948.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA): (Level – Easy)
- FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organisations.
- FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programmes.
- Under the FCRA 2022 Rules, there is an exemption from intimation to the government for contributions less than Rs 1 lakh.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency period in 1976 amid concerns that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organisations.
- Statement 2 is correct, FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programmes.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Under the FCRA 2022 Rules, there is an exemption from intimation to the government for contributions less than Rs 10 lakh.
- The earlier limit was Rs 1 lakh.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency period in 1976 amid concerns that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organisations.
- Statement 2 is correct, FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programmes.
- Statement 3 is not correct, Under the FCRA 2022 Rules, there is an exemption from intimation to the government for contributions less than Rs 10 lakh.
- The earlier limit was Rs 1 lakh.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements with regards to the United Nations Population Fund: (Level – Difficult)
- It is a subsidiary organ of the UN General Assembly and works as a sexual and reproductive health agency.
- UNFPA works directly to tackle Sustainable Development Goals on health (SDG2), education (SDG3) and gender equality (SDG4).
- In 1987, it was officially renamed the United Nations Population Fund but the original abbreviation, ‘UNFPA’ for the United Nations Fund for Population Activities was retained.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The United Nations Population Fund (UNPF) is a subsidiary organ under the umbrella of the UN General Assembly and is the United Nations’ sexual and reproductive health agency.
- Statement 2 is not correct, UNFPA is working with governments, partners and other UN agencies to directly tackle many Sustainable Development Goals particularly:
- Goal 3 on health
- Goal 4 on education
- Goal 5 on gender equality
- Statement 3 is correct, The United Nations Fund for Population Activities was established as a trust fund in 1967 and started its operations in 1969.
- In 1987, it was officially renamed the United Nations Population Fund, reflecting its lead role in the United Nations system in the area of population. The original abbreviation, UNFPA, was retained.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The United Nations Population Fund (UNPF) is a subsidiary organ under the umbrella of the UN General Assembly and is the United Nations’ sexual and reproductive health agency.
- Statement 2 is not correct, UNFPA is working with governments, partners and other UN agencies to directly tackle many Sustainable Development Goals particularly:
- Goal 3 on health
- Goal 4 on education
- Goal 5 on gender equality
- Statement 3 is correct, The United Nations Fund for Population Activities was established as a trust fund in 1967 and started its operations in 1969.
- In 1987, it was officially renamed the United Nations Population Fund, reflecting its lead role in the United Nations system in the area of population. The original abbreviation, UNFPA, was retained.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following nations share a border with Sudan? (Level – Difficult)
- Libya
- Egypt
- Chad
- Ethiopia
- Kenya
- Nigeria
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Image Source: Encyclopedia Britannica
Incorrect
Image Source: Encyclopedia Britannica
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: EconomyWith reference to 'palm oil', consider the following statements: (Level–Difficult) PYQ (2021)
- The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
- The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
- The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Oil palm trees are native to Africa and were brought to South-East Asia as an ornamental tree crop.
- Statement 2 is correct, Palm oil is used as a raw material in the lipstick and perfumes industries.
- Palm oil is one of the best options and most cost-effective cosmetics ingredients.
- Statement 3 is correct, Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
- Biodiesel from palm oil has significant potential as an alternative fuel in compression ignition (CI) engines.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Oil palm trees are native to Africa and were brought to South-East Asia as an ornamental tree crop.
- Statement 2 is correct, Palm oil is used as a raw material in the lipstick and perfumes industries.
- Palm oil is one of the best options and most cost-effective cosmetics ingredients.
- Statement 3 is correct, Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
- Biodiesel from palm oil has significant potential as an alternative fuel in compression ignition (CI) engines.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the EVMs and VVPATs:(Level–Easy)
- When a voter presses a button in the EVM, a paper slip is printed through the VVPAT.
- The slip contains the poll symbol and name of the voter.
- VVPAT machines can be accessed by polling officers only.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, VVPAT is an independent verification printer machine and is attached to electronic voting machines.
- When a voter presses a button in the EVM, a paper slip is printed through the VVPAT.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The printed slip contains the poll symbol and name of the candidate.
- Statement 3 is correct, VVPAT machines can be accessed by polling officers only.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, VVPAT is an independent verification printer machine and is attached to electronic voting machines.
- When a voter presses a button in the EVM, a paper slip is printed through the VVPAT.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The printed slip contains the poll symbol and name of the candidate.
- Statement 3 is correct, VVPAT machines can be accessed by polling officers only.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with regards to the New Space Policy 2023: (Level – Easy)
- IN-SPACe will be the interface between ISRO and non-governmental entities.
- The operational part of ISRO’s missions will be moved to the NewSpace India Limited.
- To encourage and nurture space research among young minds, ISRO launched its Student Outreach Program called SAMVAD at its Bengaluru facility.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, IN-SPACe will act as an interface between ISRO and Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) and assess how to utilize India’s space resources better and increase space-based activities.
- Statement 2 is correct, As per New Space Policy 2023, the operational part of ISRO’s missions will be moved to the NewSpace India Limited, which is a public sector undertaking under the Department of Space.
- Statement 3 is correct, To encourage and nurture space research among young minds, ISRO launched its Student Outreach Program called SAMVAD at its Bengaluru facility.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, IN-SPACe will act as an interface between ISRO and Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) and assess how to utilize India’s space resources better and increase space-based activities.
- Statement 2 is correct, As per New Space Policy 2023, the operational part of ISRO’s missions will be moved to the NewSpace India Limited, which is a public sector undertaking under the Department of Space.
- Statement 3 is correct, To encourage and nurture space research among young minds, ISRO launched its Student Outreach Program called SAMVAD at its Bengaluru facility.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with regards to Buddhism:(Level – Easy)
- After 59 consecutive days of meditation, Gautama attained Bodhi (enlightenment) under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya, a village in Bihar.
- He died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at a place called Kushinagara a town in UP. The event is known as Mahaparinibban.
- The Buddha’s teaching was oral and written.
Choose the incorrect statements:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Gautama Buddha attained ‘Bodhi’ – enlightenment after meditating for 49 consecutive days under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya in Bihar.
- Statement 2 is correct, Gautama Buddha died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at a place called Kushinagar in Uttar Pradesh.
- The event is named “Mahaparinibbana”.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Buddha’s teaching was oral and not written as he wanted his teachings to be available to the common people, even the uneducated.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Gautama Buddha attained ‘Bodhi’ – enlightenment after meditating for 49 consecutive days under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya in Bihar.
- Statement 2 is correct, Gautama Buddha died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at a place called Kushinagar in Uttar Pradesh.
- The event is named “Mahaparinibbana”.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The Buddha’s teaching was oral and not written as he wanted his teachings to be available to the common people, even the uneducated.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: HistoryFrom the declines of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India? (Level – Moderate) PYQ (2021)
- The Guptas of Magadha
- The Paramaras of Malwa
- The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
- The Maukharis of Kanauj
- The Yadavas of Devagiri
- The Maitrakas of Valabhi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
- The most prominent kingdoms that were holding power in Northern India from the decline of the Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana were the later Guptas of Magadha, Pushyabhutis of Thaneshwar, Maukharis of Kannauj, Maitrakas of Valabhi.
- The Paramaras of Malwa ruled the areas in west-central India between the 9th and 14th centuries.
- The Yadavas of Devagiri ruled the western part of the Deccan region between 850 A.D. to 1334 A.D.
Incorrect
- The most prominent kingdoms that were holding power in Northern India from the decline of the Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana were the later Guptas of Magadha, Pushyabhutis of Thaneshwar, Maukharis of Kannauj, Maitrakas of Valabhi.
- The Paramaras of Malwa ruled the areas in west-central India between the 9th and 14th centuries.
- The Yadavas of Devagiri ruled the western part of the Deccan region between 850 A.D. to 1334 A.D.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements with respect to Small Savings Schemes: (Level- Difficult)
- Small savings instruments are managed by the central government to encourage citizens to save regularly, irrespective of their age.
- They not only provide returns that are usually higher than bank fixed deposits.
- Interest rates are reviewed annually by the Government for these schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: Small savings instruments are managed by the central government to encourage citizens to save regularly, irrespective of their age.
- Statement 2 is correct: They not only provide returns that are usually higher than bank fixed deposits but also come with a sovereign guarantee and tax benefits.
- Statement 3 is not correct: Interest rates are reviewed every quarter by the Government for these schemes.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: Small savings instruments are managed by the central government to encourage citizens to save regularly, irrespective of their age.
- Statement 2 is correct: They not only provide returns that are usually higher than bank fixed deposits but also come with a sovereign guarantee and tax benefits.
- Statement 3 is not correct: Interest rates are reviewed every quarter by the Government for these schemes.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to National Investigation Agency (NIA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level- Moderate)
- The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
- Besides terrorism cases, it is now empowered to probe crimes involving human trafficking, counterfeit currency, sale of prohibited arms.
- A Special Court constituted under the National Investigation Agency Act, shall be presided over by a judge to be appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The NIA can investigate terror cases across the country without having to get permission from the states.
- Statement 2 is correct: The amendment (2019) allows the agency to investigate the following new offences like human trafficking, Counterfeit currency or bank notes, Sale or manufacture of prohibited arms, Offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908, and cyber-terrorism.
- Statement 3 is not correct: The Amendment Act authorizes the state governments to designate Special Courts. The Special Courts’ judges are appointed by the GOI in consultation with the High Court Chief Justices of the area.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The NIA can investigate terror cases across the country without having to get permission from the states.
- Statement 2 is correct: The amendment (2019) allows the agency to investigate the following new offences like human trafficking, Counterfeit currency or bank notes, Sale or manufacture of prohibited arms, Offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908, and cyber-terrorism.
- Statement 3 is not correct: The Amendment Act authorizes the state governments to designate Special Courts. The Special Courts’ judges are appointed by the GOI in consultation with the High Court Chief Justices of the area.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)? (Level- Difficult)
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- Greenhouse Gas Bulletin, State of Climate Services Report, and Global Environment Outlook (GEO) report are released by WMO.
- Predicting the locust swarms and transport of various pollutants is the responsibility of the WMO.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- Statement 2 is not correct: Greenhouse Gas Bulletin and State of Climate Services Report are released by WMO. The Global Environment Outlook (GEO) is released by UNEP.
- Statement 3 is correct: Predicting the locust swarms and transport of various pollutants is another responsibility of the WMO.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- Statement 2 is not correct: Greenhouse Gas Bulletin and State of Climate Services Report are released by WMO. The Global Environment Outlook (GEO) is released by UNEP.
- Statement 3 is correct: Predicting the locust swarms and transport of various pollutants is another responsibility of the WMO.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: GovernanceWith respect to Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level- Moderate)
- National Statistical Office (NSO) launched PLFS in 2017.
- The objective of PLFS is to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The National Statistical Office (NSO) launched the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in April 2017.
- Statement 2 is correct: The objective of PLFS is to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The National Statistical Office (NSO) launched the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in April 2017.
- Statement 2 is correct: The objective of PLFS is to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer? (Level-Easy)
Correct
A semiconductor laser (LD) is a device that causes laser oscillation by flowing an electric current to the semiconductor. It is used in Laser Printers.
Incorrect
A semiconductor laser (LD) is a device that causes laser oscillation by flowing an electric current to the semiconductor. It is used in Laser Printers.
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